1. Which state Police in India utilised the ‘Pigeon Post
Service’?
Ans. Orissa State Police
2. When was the first commemorative stamp issued in India ?
Ans. In 1931 (to mark the inauguration of New Delhi)
3. The Cricketer from Australian Test Cricket team belongs to
Australian Postal Service ?
Ans. Brad Hogg
4. The first Non Royal to appear on U.K. postage stamp?
5. In which language the first Megdoot Post card issued?
Ans. Tamil
6. First Postal stamp in the World?
Ans. Penny Black
7. When, the Indian Postal Stamp was cancelled at Mount Everest?
Ans. 1996 May 10 (by ITBP. Indo-Tibet Border Police)
8. Which is India’s first General Post Office?
Ans. Calcutta GPO (in 1774)
9. Which country issued the first self adhesive Postage stamp?
Ans. Sierra Leone (1964)
10. The first country issued new year greeting cards through
Postal service?
Ans. China
11. When was the first Postal Stamp issued ?
Ans. 1840 May 6th
12. The first Indian Personality who was depicted in foreign
stamps?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi
13. Which picture was depicted in First world stamp?
Ans. Queen Victoria’s Head
14. The busiest Post office in India?
Ans. Mumbai GPO
15. First Indian Postage stamp?
Ans. Scinde Dawk
16. No. of post offices having ‘Pictorial Cancellation facility’
in Kerala?
Ans. 23
17. India’s third scented postal stamp?
Ans. Jasmine (Rs. 15)
18. What is water mark ?
Ans. A design / mark on paper given at the time of production.
19. The first post card issued in Cochin state?
Ans. 1898 at the time of Raja Rama Varma I
20. Which country issued the first commemorative stamp in the
world?
Ans. Romania
21. Date of formation of Kerala Postal Circle?
Ans. 1961 July 1
22. Highest Denomination of Indian Commemorative stamp ever
since issued?
Ans. 1) Mother Theresa , Rs. 45/- 2) Acropora Formosa , Rs. 45/-
23. First burnt-wood smelt postage stamp issued by:
Ans. Brazil (1999) in connection with hazardous effect of forest
fire.
24. Where was the first Gandhi stamp printed ?
Ans. Switzerland
25. No. of world countries now in UPU (Universal Postal Union)?
Ans. 192
26. First coffee scented stamp issued by:
Ans. Brazil
27. First personality in whose name the first Commemorative
stamp was issued while he was alive ? Ans.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
28. The only country in the world where home delivery and
redirection of postal articles exists:
Ans. India
29. When India Post celebrated its 150th year of existence?
Ans. 2004-2005
30. When was the first Children’s day stamp issued:
Ans. 1957 Nov. 14 (Three stamps)
31. Who cancelled the Indian Postal Stamp in space suite?
Ans. Rakesh Sharma
32. Name of the Indian Post Office at Dakshin Gangotri
(Antartica)
Ans. Maitri BO
33. Which stamp is called ‘Mourning stamp of India’?
Ans. Stamp of Mahatma Gandhi issued on 15.8.1948
GK Questions for Postal Assistant Examination
Best of luck to
all Postal Assistant Exam Aspirants.
Marks: 100 Duration: 2 hours
Instructions
to Candidates
1. Answer All the Questions 2. Each
question Carries “1” Mark
3. Round off the appropriate choice in
OMR sheet
PART-A
(General Knowledge & Current
Affairs)
1.
Scientist in the month of December revealed a planet that could support life,
orbits a Sun-like star near the Earth. What is the name of the star around
which this planet was found orbiting?
1. Tau
Ceti
2.
Sirius
3. Ophiuchi
4.Gliese 33
2.Park Guen –hye has beenelected as the first women President of
1.
Thailand
2.Vietnam
3. South
Korea 4.Maurritius
3. The term “Chucker” is used in which sports?
1.Football
2. Horse Racing 3.
Wrestling
4. Polo
4. Which of the following fairs is not correct?
1. Rangaswamy
Cup-Hockey
2. Rovers
Cup- Football
3.Federation
Cup-Badminton
4.Deodhar
Trophy-Cricket
5. Who wrote the Book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’ ?
1. B. R. Ambedkar 2. Narayan Guru 3. Jyotiba Phule 4. M. P. Pillai
6. How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence?
1. 05 2. 06 3. 07 4. 08
7. Consider the following
A.
Fundamental Rights
B.
Fundamental Duties
C. Directive
Principles of State policy
In India
the provisions related to “education” have been embodied in which among
the above
1. A & B
2. B & C
3. A & C 4.
A&B&C
8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
1. 25th Amendment
Act
2. 26th Amendment Act
3. 24th Amendment Act 4. 27th Amendment Act
3. 24th Amendment Act 4. 27th Amendment Act
9. Who finally approves the draft of Five year plans
1. Parliament and State
Legislatures 2.National Development
Council
3. Planing
Commission
4. Presiodent
10. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy?
1. The doctrine of
rebirth
2. The doctrine of Syadvada
3. The doctrine of immortality of
soul 4. The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna
11. There is only one edict, in which Ashoka refers himself as king of Magadha. Identify the edict from the following?
1. The Queens
Edict
2.Bhabhru
Edict
3. Rock edict of Mashi
4. Dhuali Piller Inscription”
12. During the region of “Krishna Devaraya” which of the following famous temples were built in Vajayanagar empire?
1.
Hampi
2. Hazura
3. Belugam
4. Tirumala
13. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’?
1.Ras Behari Bose
2.Batukeshwar Datt
3. Sardar Bhagat Singh
4. Chandra Shekhar Azad
14. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—
A.
Namdeva B. Vallabhacharya C. Ramananda D. Kabir
1. A,
B,C,D
2.
B,C,D,A
3. C,D,A,B
4. D,A,B, C
15. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?
1. At the time of Communal award 2. At the time of riots in Calcutta
3. At the time of riots in Delhi 4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
3. At the time of riots in Delhi 4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
16. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—
1. Sodium
2.Barium
3.Potassium
4.Calcium
17. A colour blind Person has difficulty in distinguishing between which colours?
1. Black & Blue
2. Green & Violet
3. White & Yellow
4. Green & Red
18. “Minamata” disease is caused by
1. Automobile exhausts containing
lead
2. Water Pollution from Sevage
3. Industrial wastes having
mercury compounds
4. Wastes from Chemical factories
19. Which one of the following is not a function of Protein?
1. Building up of
tissues
2.
Catalysing some reactions
3. Growth of
bones
4. Repair of
torn tissues
20. Mother milk lacks of a. Vitamin C b. Protin c. Sodium d. Iron
1. a &
c
2. b& c
3. a & d
4. b
& d
21. The term that best describes the shape of earth is ?
1. Eclipse
2. Geoid
3. Globe
4. Shphere
22. Where on the Earth is located “Sirohi Point”?
1. North Pole
2. Indian
Ocean 3. Carabbean sea
4. Antartica
23. The gulf of Kutch is one of the two two regions on west coast of India, identified suitable for Tidal Power Station. Which among the following is the other one?
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Khamhat
3. Laccadive
4. Konken
24.
The “Hkakabo Razi” which is famous for Hkakabo Razi National Park, is boarder
tri-point between which of the following countries
1. India- China- Nepal
2. India – Bhutan- China
3. India- Bangladesh-
Myanmar 4. India- China - Myanmar
25. Which of the following State is highest density of Post Offices in India
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. West Bengal 4. Tamilnadu
PART-B
MATHEMATICS
Directions—(Q. 26 to 27) What should come in place
of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
26. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
1. 1156
2.
1200 3. 1188
4. 1176
27. The Value of ?
1.
2 2.
3/2 3.
4/13 4. 36/13
28. |
(√ 625 / 11 ×14 ×√25 ×11 / √196 ) is equal to
|
1.
11 2.
8 3.6
4. 5
29. A watch ticks 90 times in 95 seconds and another watch ticks 315 times in 323 sec. If both the watches are started together, how many times will they tick together in the first hour?
1. 51
2. 61
3.101
4.111
30. Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test. The average score in class X is 83. The average score in class Y is 76.The average score in class Z is 85. The average score of all students in classes X and Y together is 79. The average score of all students in classes Y and Z together is 81.What is the average for all the three classes?
1.
81
2.
81.5
3.
82
4. 84.5
31. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?
1.
1:5
2.
2:5
3. 3:5
4. 3:2
32. In a mixture 60 liters, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is:
1. 70
Ltrs
2. 60Ltrs
3. 50 ltrs
4. 40 ltrs
33. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are
1. 42 &
33
2. 44 & 35
3. 46 &
38
4. 45 & 36
34. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives
1.
13200
2. 14700
3. 14500
4. 13600
35. The area of a rectangle is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is the breadth of the rectangular field?
1. 15
Mtrs
2. 18 Mtrs
3. 20 Mtrs
4. 22 Mtrs
36. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
1. 4
Km/h
2. 6 Km/h
3. 8 Km/h
4. 10Km/h
37. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
1.
2018
2. 2022
3.
2026
4. 2024
38. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together. If C alone can finish the work in 40 days, then together all will finish the work in:
1. 32/3Days
2. 43/3
days
3. 40/3 days
4. 44/3 days
39. Vinod can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sandeep is 25% more efficient than Vinod. The number of days taken by Sandeep to do the same piece of work is
1. 15 Days
2. 16
days
3. 17 days
4. 14days
40. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
1. 3 hrs 15
min 2. 3 hrs 45 min
3. 4
hrs
4. 4
hrs 15 min
41. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is:
1. 40
Km/h
2.
50Km/h
3.60Km/h
4.70Km/h
42. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
1. 240
m
2.
260m
3. 280m
4. 270m
43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in:
1. 20
minutes 2. 25
minutes 3. 16
minutes 4.
18minutes
44. By mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of Rs. 177 per kg, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one brand costing Rs. 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added, then how much per kg does the other brand cost?
1.Rs 116.66
2. Rs
125.34
3. Rs
118.69
4. Rs114.17
44. A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses weights which are 20% less than the market weight. The total gain earned by him will be :
1. 35.2
%
2.35.7%
3.37.4%
4.37.5%
45. If simple interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 256 and the rate of interest per annum equals the number of years, then the rate of interest is
1.
16%
2. 18%
3.20%
4.22%
46. A sum of money at compound
interest amounts to thrice itself in three years. In how many years will it be
9 times itself?
1. 5
Years
2. 6
Years
3. 7 Years
4. 4 Years
47. The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound and simple interest for 3 years will be
1. Rs 66.56
2. Rs
64.89
3.98.56
4.74.57
48. Ten years ago, Visnuvardhan was thrice as old as Harshavardhan was ,but 10 years hence, he will be only twice as old. Find Harshvardhan’s present age
1.
30Years
2. 35
Years
3.40
Years
4.38 Years
49. There is a seller of cigarette and match boxes who sits in the narrow lanes of Medak. He prices the cigarettes at 85 p, but found that there are no takers. So he reduced the price of cigarette and managed to sell all the cigarettes, realising Rs. 77.28 in all. What is the number of cigarettes?
1. 49
2.89
3.
84
4. 92
50. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 26.50 per metre is Rs. 5300, what is the length of the plot in metres?
1. 40
meters
2.60meters
3. 80meters
4.90meters
PART-C
GENERAL ENGLISH
DIRECTIONS
:-( 51-55) Read the following Passage and answer the Questions
The supervisor would have to
change this attitude towards people first. The staff under him must be
perceived as human beings with feelings and needs. They are not autonomous
within complex work machinery. One of the greatest needs of to-days worker is
to have a feeling that he is in control of his workplace and not vice versa.
The best way is to satisfy this need as far as possible. He must feel first,
that his work is meaningful. To do this is supervisor must delegate
responsibility and limited authority for the man to execute his job well.
The subordinate must be properly trained to assume responsibility and
authority. Once he is ready to assume these he can be made accountable for
his job. Very often supervisors assume all responsibility and accountability
for fear of losing control of the workplace. This makes workers under him
pawns in a vast chess board. Delegating accountability gives the worker a
purpose in life and the need to a do a job well Most important is to sit with
each worker and chalk out common objectives and agreed norms to achieve
them . This gives workers a security as to what is expected of them. When he
has met his objectives he certainly has a feeling achievement. This
feeling of achievement is the greatest motivatior.
51. Responsibility and accountability make a worker
1. Tense and frightened 2.
shirk his duties 3. Vulnerable before his
supervisor
4. do his job properly
52. Supervisors do not delegate responsibility and authority to their subordinates because
1. Final responsibility is
there
2. Subordinates are not capable enough
3. They can’t trust their
subordinates 4 they
are apprehensive losing their hold on the workplace
53. Orientation of subordinates of common objectives and how to acieve them is
1. a
must 2. not very
important 3.not at all
necessary
4. Optional
54. A humane attitude on the part of the supervisor towards his staff is necessary to
1. Keep them happy
2. get them to work
3.
get the best out of
them
4.have a congenial atmosphere at workplace
55. The greatest motivator in a workplace is
1.
Fulfilment of purpose
2. a sense of security
3.
a good
supervisor
4. a good environment
Directions—(Q. 56-57) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
56. MENIAL
1.Unskilled
2.
Tall
3. Affluent
4.Sick
57. VICARIOUS
1.
Ambitious 2. Not experienced
personally 3.
Nostalgic
4. Vindictive
Directions—(Q. 58–59) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
58. PUERILE
1.
Inquisitive
2.matured
3. Impure
4. Original
59. SOBRIETY
1.
Moderation 2.
Drunkenness 3.
Dizziness
4. Stupidity
Directions—(Q. 60–63) (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (1), (2) and (3) and (4). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error.
60. Critics of government policy / argue that the new measures introduced
(1) (2)
to fight crime are simply papering on the cracks. / No error. (3) (4)
61. The plans have been under / discussion for a year now,
(1) (2)
but no decision has reached. / No error. (3) (4)
62. Two newspapers did / an very effective hatchet job
(1) (2)
on the Prime Minister’s achievements. / No error.
(3) (4)
63. Your argument was clear / to us from the start
(1) (2)
there’s no need to labour the point. / No error. (3) (4)
64. Which of the
following is a Simple Sentence?
1. I met my friend when I went to the theatre
2. On my way to the theatre, I met my friend
3. I went to the theatre and met my friend
4. While I was in the theatre, I met my friend
65. The following
sentence has been transformed into the Passive in four ways. Which
transformation is the best?
They will make him King
1. He will be made King
by them. 2. King would be made by
them.
3. He was made king by
them 4. King will be made by
them.
66. In which sentence is the verb in the active voice?
1. They were detained at the gate
2. You have made it easy
3. It has been recently disproved
4. She was known for her talent in music.
67. In which of the following sentences are all articles used correctly?
1. This hospital was rated the most advanced with
respect to the techniques employed for surgery.
2. This hospital was rated the
most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for the surgery
3. This hospital was rated
a most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for surgery
4. This hospital was
rated most advanced with respect to the techniques used for a
surgery
68. In which of the following sentences are all Prepositions used correctly?
1. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed towards frogs.
2. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed for frogs.
3. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed into frogs
4. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed from frogs
69. The cricket match proved to be a big draw. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of idiom / phrase underlined
1. A keen
contest
2. A huge attraction
3. A lovely
spectacle
4. A game without any result
|
70. Which of the following is a suitable way to end a letter to a
close friend?
1. Write back soon, will you?
2. An immediate reply will be greatly appreciated
3. Reply by return of post
4. Expecting a favourable reply, I remain
71. ________you remember to lock the door?
1. Didn’t
2. Aren’t
3. Haven’t
4. Doesn’t
72. What part of speech is the underlined word or words in the following sentence? She floated quietly and lazily around the pool.
1. Noun
2. Adverb
3.
Preposition 4
Adjective
|
73. Mother said to son, “ Do not run so fast” ( Change into indirect speech)
1. Mother wanted son, not to run so fast 2. Mother said son, not to run so fast
3. Mother advised son, not to run so fast 4.Mother ordered son, not to run so fast
74. Having obtained the degree abroad, Harsha returned home. (Choose its correct compound sentence form)
1. The degree was obtained abroad and Harsha
returned home
2.Harsha returned home because he obtained the
degree abroad
3. Harsha obtained the degree abroad and he returned
home
4. Harsha returned home and he obtained the degree
abroad
PART-D
REASONING AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY
76. Study each of the following table
and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10
12
2 5 12 10 16
13
1 2 1 ? 10
24
1.
5 2.11 3.13
4.8
77.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. 19 2.
35 3.
15 4. 21
78.
Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary
and then choose the correct sequence.
A.Wrinkle B.
Wriggle C. Writhe D.
Wratch E. Wrath
1.
D,E,A,B,C 2.
E,D,B, A,C 3.D,B,E,A,B 4.E,B,A,C,
D
79. In a certain code SAFER
is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. HowisFEDS written in that
code?
1. 3#©5. 2.
3@%5 3.
3#%5 4.
3#%2
80. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is
called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’,
‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the
following grows underground ?
1.
Potato
2.
Guava
3.Apple
4.
Banana
81. If in a certain code, ‘O’ is written as ‘E’, ‘A’, as ‘C’, ‘M’ as ‘I’,
‘S’ as ‘O’, ‘N’ as ‘P’, ‘E’ as ‘M’, ‘I’ as ‘A’, ‘P’ as ‘N’ and ‘C’ as ‘S’,
then how will ‘COMPANIES’ be written in that code?
1. SEIACPAMO 2. SMINCPAMO 3. SEINCPAMO
4. SEINCPMIO
82. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of
them are alike in a certain way while one i different. Choose the odd one.
1. GWOURV
2.
LZKMU
3.
SFXPMG 4.
JOEHNP
83. From the
positions in original figure ‘A’ and ‘C’ move diagonally to opposite corners
and then one side each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. ‘D’ and ‘B’
move two sides each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. Where is ‘A’
now?
1. At the North-East
corner
2.At the
North-West corner
3 At the South-West
corner
4. At the South-East corner
84.It was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept
correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at
9•25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every
20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus?
|
||||||||||||||||||
1. 5
minutes 2. 10
minutes 3. 15
minutes
4.
25 minutes
85. Among A, B, P, Q and S, B is immediate next taller than the shortest
and Q is taller than P. Which of he following statements (s) is (are)
necessary to decide the tallest among them?
(A) P is not as tall as S. (B) A is third below Q in height
(C) P is second in height above A 1. Only (A) or
(B) 2. Only
(B) or (C)
3 Only (A) or
(C)
4(A) or (B) or (C)
86.If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means
A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the
sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q? Ans: C
1. Q - N + M x
P 2. P + S
x N –
Q 3.
P - M + N x Q 4. Q - S % P
87. Find
out the missing number:-
1. 6
2.8
3.4
4.3
88. Five boys are sitting in a row. Sudhir is
sitting next to Prakash but not Tarun. Kumar is sitting next to Ravi who is
sitting on the extreme left and Tarun is not sitting next to Kumar. Who are
sitting on either side of Sudhir?
1. Prakash
& Kumar 2. Prakash &Ravi 3.Tarun
& Prakash 4. Prakash alone
89. How
many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers whiich are
immediately followedby an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an
even number?
8 6 7 6 8 9
3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3
5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9
1. One
2. Three
3. Five
4. None of these.
|
1.64
2.144
3.169
4.
139
Directions–(Q. 91–95) Study the
following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ★ G © U M 7 F I V
% 4 Z 8 Y
91. If all the numbers are
dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the
seventeenth from the right end ?
1.
E
2
P
3.
I
4.@
92. Which of the following is the
sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
1.
3
2.
A
3.
N
4.
S
93. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the
fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
1
V
2.4
3. %
4.
E
94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
1.
IM%
2.
CNG
3. 3#N
4
UGC
95. How many such symbols are there in
above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and
immediately followed by a number ?
1.
None
2.
One
3. Two
4.Three
Directions
(96-100): Answer the questions based on the
given line graph.
Ratio
of Exports to Imports (in terms of money in Rs. crores) of Two Companies Over
the Years
|
96. In how many of the
given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?
1.2
2.3
3.
4
4.5
97. If the imports of Company A
in 1997 were increased by 40 percent, what would be the ratio of exports to
the increased imports?
1. 1.25
2.
1.20
3.
1.30
4.None
98. If
the exports of Company A in 1998 were Rs. 237 crores, what was the amount of
imports in that year?
1.Rs. 189.6 crores 2. Rs. 243 crores
3. Rs. 281 crores
4. Rs. 316 crores
99. In 1995, the export of Company A
was double that of Company B. If the imports of Company A during the year was
Rs. 180 crores, what was the approximate amount of imports pf Company B
during that year?
1.Rs. 190 crores
2. Rs. 210 crores
3. Rs. 225 crores
4. Cannot be determined
100. In
which year(s) was the difference between imports and exports of Company B the
maximum?
1.2000
2.1996
3.
1998 to 2000 4. Cannot be determined
Answers :-
1- 1 , 2- 3 , 3- 4 , 4- 3
, 5- 3 , 6- 3 , 7-4
, 8-3 ,
9- 2 , 10-2
, 11-3
, 12- 2 , 13- 3 ,
14- 3 , 15-2 ,
16- 2 , 17- 4 , 18-3 , 19-2
,20- 3 , 21-2 ,
22-4 , 23-2, 24-4, 25-3, 26- 4,
27- 1,
28- 4 , 29- 3, 30- 2 , 31- 4 , 32- 2 , 33- 1 , 34- 2 , 35- 2 , 36- 2 ,
37- 1,38-3 ,
39- 2,
40- 2, 41-3, 42- 1,
43- 4, 44- 4, 45- 1 , 46- 2 , 47-3 , 48- 1 , 49- 4 , 50- 2 , 51- 4, 52- 4 ,
53- 1,
54- 3, 55- 1, 56- 1, 57- 4 ,58- 2 ,59- 2 , 60- 3 , 61- 3 , 62- 2 , 63- 4 , 64- 2, 65- 1 ,
66- 2,
67- 1 , 68- 3 , 69- 2, 70- 1, 71- 1, 72- 4, 73- 4 , 74- 3, 75- 4 ,
76- 3, 77- 1, 78- 2,
79- 2, 80- 4, 81- 3, 82- 3,
83- 4, 84- 1, 85- 1, 86- 3, 87- 3, 88- 1, 89- 4, 90- 2,
91- 4,
92- 4, 93- 3, 94- 4, 95- 3, 96- 2, 97- 1, 98-4, 99- 2, 100- 4
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